A bit morbid, sorry, but I sometimes wonder about this.
The majority of infamous serial killers were from the 70’s. This suggests that there was an increase in this sort of activity during this period, and this is a theory that I’ve heard repeated by others at times, and seems to be a popular concept.
My first question is; is this really the case? Or is it instead something like changes in law enforcement tactics or increased media focus made what already existed seemingly increase in frequency?
Secondly; if there was indeed an increase, are there any theories on what caused this?
Thanks
Welcome to /r/AskHistorians. Please Read Our Rules before you comment in this community. Understand that rule breaking comments get removed.
Please consider Clicking Here for RemindMeBot as it takes time for an answer to be written. Additionally, for weekly content summaries, Click Here to Subscribe to our Weekly Roundup.
We thank you for your interest in this question, and your patience in waiting for an in-depth and comprehensive answer to show up. In addition to RemindMeBot, consider using our Browser Extension, or getting the Weekly Roundup. In the meantime our Twitter, Facebook, and Sunday Digest feature excellent content that has already been written!
I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please contact the moderators of this subreddit if you have any questions or concerns.